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Exam Code: 000-M224
Exam Name: IBM (IBM Initiate Master Data Service Sales Mastery v1)
One year free update, No help, Full refund!
Total Q&A: 39 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2013-12-30

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NO.1 What is NOT a strategic value of an Enterprise Master Person Index (EMPI) solution?
A. increase profitability
B. maintain provider registry
C. ensure regulatory compliance
D. improve quality of patient care
Answer: A

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NO.2 What is used to determine the price of an IBM Initiate solution?
A. number of records managed
B. number of user licenses
C. number of CPUs
D. number of employees in the organization
Answer: B

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NO.3 What is NOT one of the reasons for the IBM acquisition of Initiate.?
A. consolidation
B. growth
C. investment
D. integration
Answer: A

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Exam Code: 000-M246
Exam Name: IBM (IBM Smarter Commerce Sales Mastery Test v1)
One year free update, No help, Full refund!
Total Q&A: 50 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2013-12-30

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NO.1 Segmentation, offer management, interaction history, real-time behavioral targeting, and contact
optimization are examples of capabilities delivered as part of what.?
A. Data mining.
B. Social platform.
C. Central decisioning.
D. Customer clustering.
Answer: C

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NO.2 Smarter Commerce capabilities are packaged and delivered as what?
A. A single, high-value, shrink-wrapped, solution for commerce.
B. Middleware components requiring additional business function software.
C. Software, hardware, and services to deliver specific business processcapabilities which support each
phase of the commerce cycle.
D. A simple monolithic application for each phase of the commerce cycle.
Answer: A

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NO.3 You can create a powerful self-service experience for the customer using?
A. The IBM Customer Experience Suite
B. The IBM Commerce Framework
C. The IBM Enterprise Service Process Manager
D. The IBM Customer Service System
Answer: A

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NO.4 Smarter Commerce is focused on which of the following 3 dimensions with respect to the customer?
A. Customer potential, customer transaction capture, customer fulfillment.
B. Customer insight, customer value strategy, customer & partner engagement.
C. Customer demographics, customer geography, customer affluence.
D. Customer returns, customer purchases, customer order changes.
Answer: B

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Exam Code: 00M-648
Exam Name: IBM (IBM Rational IT Sales Mastery Test v2 )
One year free update, No help, Full refund!
Total Q&A: 81 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2013-12-30

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NO.1 Which of these challenges exist most often in Software Development and Delivery?
A. Language, Relational, Geographic
B. Organizational, Cultural, Systemic
C. Environmental, Infrastructure, Educational
D. Geographic, Organizational and Infrastructure
Answer: D

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NO.2 What is a key differentiator of the Rational Deployment Planning and Automation solution compared to
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A. A focus on continuous integration deployment automation.
B. Its strategy is to automate logic that the customer has already written.
C. It relies on integrating a mix of Rational and open-source technologies.
D. It is a true broad development-to-operations solution.
Answer: A

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NO.3 Many organizations depend on web-based software to run their business processes, conduct
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A. It provides a run time monitor of web applications to prevent unwanted intrusions.
B. It enables organizations to embed application security testing throughout the development life cycle to
help increase visibility and control while employing a risk mitigation strategy.
C. It provides authentication and identification services to ensure that only authorized users can access
mission critical applications.
D. It analyzes network traffic to identify trojan horses, malware, etc.
Answer: B

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Exam Code: 000-N11
Exam Name: IBM (IBM InfoSphere Change Data Capture Technical Mastery Test v2 )
One year free update, No help, Full refund!
Total Q&A: 51 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2013-12-30

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NO.1 Which of the following will be a valid SOURCE for "InfoSphere Change Data Capture (CDC) for Oracle
Triggers".?
A. Local Oracle databases running on any supported platform
B. Remote Oracle databases running on any supported platform
C. Both local and remote Oracle databases running on any supported platform
D. Heterogeneous databases running on any supported platform
Answer: A

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NO.2 What happens when a new CDC subscription is created while database logging is turned off at the
source?
A. The CDC instance cannot be connected
B. The datastore cannot be created or connected
C. The subscription that uses the source datastore cannot be created
D. When the subscription is started using the Management Console, the replication will not succeed.
Answer: D

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NO.3 What additional software is needed to develop and compile your own Java User Exits in CDC?
A. Microsoft Visual C++ compiler
B. JDK only
C. Both JRE and JDK
D. No additional software is required
Answer: B

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NO.4 The default port number 10101 assigned to Access Server is ________________.
A. a fixed value pre-assigned by the software that can never be changed
B. a fixed value assigned by users at the time of installing the software
C. automatically assigned based on the license key
D. updatable by editing the Management Console properties
Answer: D

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NO.5 CDC guarantees data integrity by using two-phase commit operation between ____________.
A. source tables and source metadata
B. target tables and target metadata
C. source tables and target Tables
D. source metadata and target metadata
Answer: B

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Exam Code: 000-579
Exam Name: IBM (IBM Tivoli Storage Manager V6.3 Fundamentals)
One year free update, No help, Full refund!
Total Q&A: 98 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2013-12-30

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NO.1 What are two benefits of an adaptive subfile backup? (Choose two.)
A. Large backup window
B. Limited connection time
C. Incremental forever backup
D. Longer Windows file retention
E. Reduced bandwidth requirements
Answer: B,E

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NO.2 IBM Tivoli Storage Manager deduplication is supported on which two resources? (Choose two.)
A. Client
B. LTO tape
C. Backup tape pool
D. Random access disk pool
E. Sequential access disk pool
Answer: A,E

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NO.3 Which command creates an IBM Tivoli Storage Manager policy set?
A. Define policyset my_domain my_policy
B. Create policyset my_domain my_policy
C. Activate policyset my_domain my_policy
D. Create new policyset my_domain my_policy
Answer: A

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NO.4 Which command grants access to another node from the IBM Tivoli Storage Manager Server
administrative command line?
A. grant proxy node
B. set node access
C. grant node proxy
D. grant node access
Answer: A

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NO.5 The customer tells the IBM Tivoli Storage Manager (TSM) administrator that a Windows file server has
to be upgraded and therefore is put into maintenance. The manager wants to have the data immediately
available for restore in the event of problems. What is one of the actions of the TSM administrator?
A. move data
B. export node
C. copy activedata
D. prepare backupset
Answer: C

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NO.6 Which protocol can be used to back up network attached storage file systems efficiently with IBM Tivoli
Storage Manager V6.3?
A. Write Anywhere File Layout (WAFL)
B. Network Data Backup Protocol (NDBP)
C. Network Data Management Protocol (NDMP)
D. Network Attached Storage Backup Protocol (NASBP)
Answer: C

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NO.7 Which two statements are true about a point-in-time restore? (Choose two.)
A. Point-in-time restores can be performed for image backups and the system state data for Windows.
B. Files which were deleted from the client workstation prior to the point-in-time specified will be restored.
C. Selective or incremental-by-date backups must be used to restore the state that existed at a specific
date and time.
D. IBM Tivoli Storage Manager (TSM) restores file versions from the most recent backup before the
specified point-in-time date.
E. If the requested point-in-time restore date and time is prior to the oldest version maintained by TSM,
the object will be restored.
Answer: A,D

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NO.8 When running a backup of a client which has journaling enabled, which option for a manual backup
using the IBM Tivoli Storage Manager GUI performs a normal incremental backup without using the
journal?
A. Nojournal
B. Incremental
C. Incremental (complete)
D. Incremental (without journal)
Answer: D

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NO.9 A customer created a schedule and is checking the results. What is the correct sequence of a
successful incremental scheduled backup?
A. Future, pending, started, completed
B. Future, waiting, started, running, completed
C. Future, started, pending, running, completed
D. Future, pending, started, running, completed
Answer: D

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NO.10 A new IBM Tivoli Storage Manager (TSM) Backup-Archive client must be set up on a TSM Server. This
client requires a new policy with three generations of backups for existing files, two generations of deleted
files, and the older generations to be kept for two months. This new client, called NEWCLT, will be part of
policy domain POLDOM. Which sequence of commands will accomplish this?
A. Option A
B. Option B
C. Option C
D. Option D
Answer: B

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NO.11 Which statement about the Wheel of Life is true?
A. Expiration is a prerequisite for reclamation.
B. Migration frees wasted space on sequential volumes.
C. Backup storage pool moves the backup data to the next storage pool.
D. The daily administrative tasks should run in a specific order because it speeds up the whole
housekeeping process
Answer: A

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NO.12 Which software must be installed to implement journal-based backups in IBM Tivoli Storage Manager
V6.3?
A. Server
B. Journaler
C. Server API
D. Backup-Archive client
Answer: D

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NO.13 All client data has been backed up to the primary pools. What is the recommended flow of data within
the storage hierarchy?
A. The storage pool data is backed up.
B. The storage pool data is backed up and then migrated and reclaimed.
C. The storage pool data is migrated to the next pool and then backed up.
D. The data stays in the pool, and the IBM Tivoli Storage Manager database is backed up
Answer: B

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NO.14 What are three files that are preserved during the IBM Tivoli Storage Manager Windows client upgrade?
(Choose three.)
A. dsm.opt
B. dsm.sys
C. tsm.options
D. dsmerror.log
E. dsmsched.log
F. dsmwebcl.out
Answer: A,D,E

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NO.15 A client node's file is bound to a management class that has an archive retention set to one year. The
file on that client is archived once a month for one year. At the end of one year how many copies of the
archived file exist in IBM Tivoli Storage Manager?
A. 7
B. 12
C. 19
D. 30
Answer: B

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Exam Code: 000-N18
Exam Name: IBM (IBM Information Management DB2 10 Technical Mastery Test v3)
One year free update, No help, Full refund!
Total Q&A: 35 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2013-12-30

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NO.1 Which of the following options best defines the Label-Based Access Control (LBAC) feature.?
A. DB2 LBAC allows you to use labels to reference database objects by a short name instead of the full
qualified name.
B. DB2 LBAC lets you decide exactly who has write/read access to individual rows and columns by
comparing the security labels between database objects and users.
C. DB2 LBAC monitors table data access and tables modifications made by database users.
D. DB2 LBAC is the DB2 authority in charge of issuing GRANT and REVOKE statements.
Answer: B

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NO.2 Which one of the following options is TRUE about High Availability and Disaster Recovery (HADR)
feature?
A. HADR allows up to two HADR standby databases.
B. HADR allows up to three HADR standby databases.
C. HADR allows up to four HADR standby databases.
D. HADR allows up to five HADR standby databases.
Answer: B

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NO.3 Which one of the following options is FALSE about DB2's Multi-Temperature Data Storage capability?
A. You can use storage groups to implement multi-temperature data management in DB2.
B. Multi-temperature data management reduces the total cost of ownership by allowing efficient
deployment of storage hardware with minimal administrative overhead.
C. Multi-temperature data management integrates with DB2's Workload Manager feature to let you
prioritize your workloads based on the data being accessed.
D. Multi-temperature data management best practices recommend that cold data should be stored in
faster devices in order to maximize overall system performance.
Answer: D

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NO.4 Which one of the following options is CORRECT about Temporal Tables?
A. Temporal tables are complex to maintain and require major application changes.
B. Temporal tables require constant changes to the operating system timestamp in order to navigate
through time in the database.
C. Temporal tables are used to model data in the past and present. They cannot be used to model data in
the future.
D. Temporal tables are used to model data in the past, present, and future.
Answer: D

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NO.5 What is a DB2 instance?
A. A DB2 instance is just another name for DB2 Database.
B. A DB2 instance is a copy of a database that can be accessed standalone from the database server.
C. A DB2 instance is a logical database manager environment where you catalog databases and set
configuration parameters.
D. DB2 does not use instances. It requires only databases to operate.
Answer: C

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Exam Code: COG-701
Exam Name: IBM (IBM Cognos TM1 10.1 Analyst)
One year free update, No help, Full refund!
Total Q&A: 60 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2013-12-30

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NO.1 What must a TM1 Application Web user do to perform what-if analysis on budget amounts, without
affecting the current version of the data?
A. Export to Cognos Insight.
B. Create a Sandbox.
C. Slice to Excel.
D. Create a scenario.
Answer: B

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NO.2 Why would you use Rebuild over Recalc in an Active Form?
A. When a conditional format on a report changes
B. When metadata is added to the TM1 model that must be displayed on the row
C. When data changes along the rows of a report
D. When a leaf element is added to a consolidated element of a report
Answer: B

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NO.3 A company uses Excel workbooks to access IBM Cognos TM1 data over a wide area network. The
company needs to improve the performance of their Excel workbooks which contain multiple slices from
multiple TM1 cubes.
Which two changes will improve performance.? (Choose two.)
A. Convert all DBR() functions to DBRW() functions.
B. Make all DBRW() functions reference a single VIEW function.
C. Convert all DBRA() functions to DBRW() functions.
D. Convert all DBRW() functions to DBR() functions.
Answer: A,C

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NO.4 What are three reasons why you would use Cognos BI Reporting rather than TM1 Web? (Choose
three.)
A. You must merge data from different cube sources.
B. You require bursting of reports.
C. You require different report versions.
D. You require data entry capability.
E. You require highlight capability for reports.
Answer: A,B,C

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NO.5 You want to create TM1 Excel reports.
What are two methods to accomplish this? (Choose two.)
A. Build from Excel directly
B. Use the Slice to Excel button
C. ExportCognos Insight report to Excel
D. Use the TM1 Excel wizard
Answer: B,C

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NO.6 How do you configure a TM1 Web application so that users are not prompted for the TM1 Admin Host
every time they log in?
A. Modify the capability assignments in TM1 Architect.
B. Edit the pmpsvc_config.xml file.
C. Edit the web.config file.
D. Change security on the top-Level application folder from "private" to "public".
Answer: C

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NO.7 Click the Exhibit button.
In the Assumptions dimension all key figures are formatted correctly as shown in the exhibit, yet all values
are displayed as currency.
Where would you search for the currency format?
A. In the title dimensions
B. In the other row dimension
C. In the column dimensions
D. In the cube format
Answer: C

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NO.8 You have entered new planning data into a TM1 Model and all figures are blue. Which statement is
correct?
A. The numbers are in the base cube and need to be submitted before seen by others.
B. The numbers are in the base cube and need to be committed before seen by others.
C. The numbers are in a Personal Workspace and need to be committed before seen by others.
D. The numbers are in a Personal Workspace and need to be saved before seen by others.
Answer: C

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NO.9 A TM1 Application Web user has completed data input. Which action allows the user to lock the data for
review?
A. Commit
B. Save
C. Release ownership
D. Submit
Answer: D

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NO.10 You have imported a sales data Cognos Insight local cube. You have years, quarters, and months in
different dimensions. However, for your business requirements, it would be better to have a one-time
dimension.
How would you change your model?
A. Change the cube structure using the Group Dimension function.
B. Create a new cube using the Group Dimension function.
C. Change the cube structure using the Combine Dimension function.
D. Create a new cube using the Combine Dimension function.
Answer: B

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Exam Code: 000-575
Exam Name: IBM (IBM Tivoli Federated Identity Manager V6.2.2 Implementation )
One year free update, No help, Full refund!
Total Q&A: 135 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2013-12-30

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NO.1 What does this XSL code do?
<xsl:template match-'@* | node()">
<xsl:copy>
<xsl:apply-templates select="@* | node()"/>
</xsl:copy>
</xsl:template>
A. It makes a copy of the template transforms on the input document.
B. It performs a series of transforms on a copy of the input document.
C. It creates a new copy of the input document, copying all attributes, but not elements.
D. It creates a new copy of the input document, copying all elements, but not attributes.
Answer: B

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NO.2 What is always required when deploying the IBM Tivoli Federated Identity Manager V6.2.2 runtime and
management service?
A. WebSEAL
B. IBM HTTP Server
C. IBM Tivoli Identity Manager
D. IBM WebSphere Application Server
Answer: D

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NO.3 A customer uses WebSEAL as the point of contact for IBM Tivoli Federated Identity Manager V6.2.2
(TFIM) where IBM Tivoli Access Manager (TAM) is configured to support Federal Information Processing
Standards (FIPS). When running the tfimcfg.jar tool this error is received:
FBTTAC1161 The SSL handshake failed. Retrying connection with certificate validation disabled
What must be done?
A. TFIM must be configured for SSL communication.
B. FIPS must be enabled on all TFIM WebSphere servers.
C. The TAM public certificates must be imported to the WebSphere trust store.
D. The tfimcfg.jar tool needs to run with the-sslfactory TLS argument.
Answer: D

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NO.4 What is a trust service chain in IBM Tivoli Federated Identity Manager V6.2.2 (TFIM)?
A. It is a defined set of WS-Trust security tokens, which together form a proof of trust and are organized
sequentially in their correct order of precedence.
B. It is a defined set of WS-Security trust tokens, which together form a proof of claim and are organized
sequentially in their correct order of precedence.
C. It is a defined set of individual processing module instances, collectively executed in a specific order,
with the interface to and roles for each module conforming to the WS-Trust model.
D. It is a defined set of individual processing module instances which are always executed in the specific
order required by the authentication flow, with the interface to and roles for each module conforming to the
WS-Trust model.
Answer: C

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NO.5 What is the default file name of the IBM Tivoli Directory Integrator log?
A. tdi.log
B. ibmdi.log
C. ibmdisrv.log
D. ibmdirectoryintegrator.log
Answer: B

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NO.6 Which roles are typically defined in an IBM Tivoli Federated Identity Manager V6.2.2 Single Sign-On
federation configuration?
A. Relying Party or Service Provider
B. Asserting Party or Service Provider
C. Identity Provider or Asserting Party
D. Identity Provider or Service Provider
Answer: D

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NO.7 Click the Exhibit button.
Which three statements are true regarding this SAML 1.1 flow diagram.? (Choose three.)
A. The HTTP request in Step 3 is a GET.
B. The assertion is sent with an HTTP 200 response in Step 2.
C. An artifact value is sent with an HTTP 302 response in Step 2.
D. This is a Browser/POST profile, so in Step 3 the assertion is sent to the Assertion Consumer Service
endpoint through an HTTP POST of an HTML form.
E. The HTTP response in Step 5 must be a 302 redirect based upon the resource requested and the
user's authorized access which is determined by the response in Step 4.
F. This is a Browser/Artifact profile, so the artifact received in Step 2 must be sent to the Artifact
Resolution Service in Step 3, and the assertion must be retrieved through a SOAP backchannel in Step 4.
Answer: A,C,F

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NO.8 Which partner vouches for the identity of a user in a Single Sign-On federation?
A. Relying party
B. Attribute party
C. Service provider
D. Identity provider
Answer: D

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NO.9 What is always required when creating an IBM Tivoli Federated Identity Manager V6.2.2 (TFIM) Single
Sign-On federation partner?
A. A signer certificate
B. A login protocol endpoint
C. A metadata file containing the partner definitions
D. A federation default or partner-specific mapping rule or function
Answer: D

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NO.10 Which statement is true regarding event pages when creating a federation in IBM Tivoli Federated
Identity Manager V6.2.2 (TFIM)?
A. Event pages are tied to a protocol and not to a specific federation.
B. Event pages must be created (or copied from the defaults) and stored in the federation event directory.
C. Event pages can use the @FEDSTATUS@ macro to provide detailed Single Sign-On status
information to the user.
D. When creating event pages for a federation, it is important to append the federation name to the event
page filename so the TFIM runtime will use that instead of the default protocol event page.
Answer: A

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NO.11 Which statement is true about the IBM Tivoli Federated Identity Manager V6.2.2 Business Gateway?
A. Users can use several gateway protocols.
B. Users can access external Web services.
C. Users can create Federated Single Sign-On partnerships with multiple providers.
D. Users cannot create Federated Single Sign-On partnerships with multiple providers.
Answer: C

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NO.12 When is IBM WebSphere Application Server required for IBM Tivoli Federated Identity Manager V6.2.2
(TFIM)?
A. It is always required for TFIM.
B. When it is used as the point of contact.
C. When the Management Console GUI is used.
D. When Web Services Security Management is used
Answer: A

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NO.13 Custom Java mapping functions must be deployed into which IBM Tivoli Federated Identity Manager
V6.2.2 directory?
A. Plug-ins
B. Add-ins
C. Mappings
D. Extensions
Answer: A

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NO.14 Given IBM Tivoli Federated Identity Manager V6.2.2 configured as an OpenID provider, what is a
correct statement regarding processing of attributes when using an IBM Tivoli Directory Integrator
AssemblyLine as a mapping function?
A. Only requested attributes can be returned.
B. All attributes requested must be BASE64 encoded to ensure proper handling.
C. The AssemblyLine must assure that values for non-optional attributes are returned.
D. Requested attributes that have an empty value (not an empty string) must be removed and cannot be
returned.
Answer: C

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NO.15 A company wants to establish a Federated Single Sign-On (FSSO) relationship with a partner identity
provider to allow partner administrator access. This company provides services for credit card processing.
What is the most secure choice for the FSSO protocol?
A. OpenID using Associate Mode
B. SAML 2.0 using HTTP Redirect/POST bindings, signed response, and signed assertion
C. SAML 1.1 using a Browser/POST profile, signed response and assertion, and a narrow assertion
validity window of only a few seconds
D. SAML 2.0 using an HTTP-Artifact binding, signed response and assertion, an encrypted assertion, and
a narrow assertion validity window of only a few seconds
Answer: D

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NO.16 Which HTTP status code is always issued by an identity provider using SAML 1.1 Browser/POST when
communicating with the Assertion Consumer Service?
A. 101
B. 200
C. 206
D. 302
Answer: B

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NO.17 When configuring WebSEAL as the point of contact for IBM Tivoli Federated Identity Manager V6.2.2
using the WebSEAL No ACLD profile, which configuration requirement(s) are relevant?
A. This option must be set: Disable Access Manager (IVCred) credential issuing (requires EAI to be
configured).
B. This option must be cleared: Enable Access Manager (IVCred) credential issuing (requires PDJRTE to
be configured).
C. This option must be set: Disable Access Manager (IVCred) credential issuing (requires EAI to be
configured); and the no-acid tag value attribute must be defined in the WebSEAL configuration.
D. This option must be cleared: Enable Access Manager (IVCred) credential issuing (requires PDJRTE to
be configured); and the no-acid tag value attribute must be defined in the WebSEAL configuration.
Answer: B

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NO.18 What does SAML stand for?
A. System Access Markup Language
B. Security Assertion Markup Language
C. Server Authenticated Markup Language
D. Secure Authentication Markup Language
Answer: B

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NO.19 What is XSLT?
A. A concatenative language for transforming input XML documents into new documents, which typically
takes an XML source document and applies template rules to subexpressions, producing a new output
document.
B. A declarative language for transforming input XML documents into new documents, which typically
takes an XML source document and applies template rules in an XSLT stylesheet to it, producing a new
output document.
C. An imperative language for transforming input XML documents into new documents, which typically
takes an XML source document and applies template rules in an XSLT stylesheet to it, producing a new
output document.
D. A automata-based language for transforming input XML documents into new documents, which
typically takes an XML source document and applies template rules to transition element states,
producing a new output document.
Answer: B

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NO.20 A client has installed IBM Tivoli Federated Identity Manager V6.2.2 (TFIM) and is establishing a SAML
1.1 Single Sign-On (SSO) configuration with a service provider (SP). The client wants to provide
SP-initiated Federated SSO. How can this be accomplished?
A. A link or redirect to the SP login endpoint with the parameters SP_PROVIDER_ID and target can be
used to initiate the protocol at the SP. The SP will then redirect the user to the corresponding identity
provider (IdP) login endpoint.
B. A link or redirect to the SP login endpoint with the parameters IDP_PROVIDER_ID and target can be
used to initiate the protocol at the SP. The SP will then redirect the user to the corresponding IdP login
endpoint.
C. Because a SP-initiated sign-on is not supported in SAML 1.1, this can be simulated by using a link or
an HTTP 302 redirect to the IdP login endpoint with the query string parameters SP_PROVIDER_ID and
TARGET to initiate the protocol.
D. Because a SP-initiated sign-on is not supported in SAML 1.1, and only an HTTP POST to the IdP can
be used to initiate the protocol, the SP must generate an HTTP 200 response containing a form with the
SP_PROVIDER_ID and target values which is self-posted to the IdP login endpoint.
Answer: C

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Exam Code: 00M-638
Exam Name: IBM (IBM Lotus Notes & Domino Sales Mastery Test v2)
One year free update, No help, Full refund!
Total Q&A: 46 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2013-12-30

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NO.1 How many Notes and Notes and Domino applications are estimated to be in active use today?
A. over 10 million
B. over 1 million
C. fewer than 100,000
D. over 700 million
Answer: A

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NO.2 When speaking with a customer who is still on older versions of Notes and Domino, what is the best
reason for upgrading to Notes and Domino 8.5.?
A. Replication allows for advanced offline capabilities.
B. The Notes user interface still looks much like Notes Version 5, which appeals to older workers.
C. Organizations can significantly reduce IT costs by upgrading to Domino 8.5.
D. The Domino server has been re-engineered to run on WebSphere Application Server.
Answer: B

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NO.3 Recipient indicators in Notes mail enhances productivity by providing users with what information?
A. The indicate how many people have received an email.
B. The indicate whether the user is a direct recipient of email or justcopied.
C. The indicate whether an email contains an attachment.
D. They indicate whether a recipient has received an email.
Answer: A

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NO.4 Briefly, what is IBM Social Business strategy?
A. Moving all corporate data to the cloud
B. Leveraging social capabilities in context to enable better business results
C. Discouraging employees from using Facebook and Twitter during work
D. Using IBM Watson technology to improve search algorithms
Answer: B

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A. Users pay an entitlement fee of $300 to trade-in Microsoft Office for Lotus Symphony
B. Lotus Symphony is a free download for anyone to use
C. Only users of Notes 8.5 can use Lotus Symphony
D. Only users of Microsoft Office are allowed to replace Office with Lotus Symphony
Answer: B

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Exam Code: 00M-246
Exam Name: IBM (IBM Smarter Commerce Sales Mastery Test v1)
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Total Q&A: 50 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2013-12-30

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NO.1 You can create a powerful self-service experience for the customer using?
A. The IBM Customer Experience Suite
B. The IBM Commerce Framework
C. The IBM Enterprise Service Process Manager
D. The IBM Customer Service System
Answer: A

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NO.2 In order to effectively implement ___________ you must be able to aggregate line items from individual
orders to send to suppliers and then separate them out again for customer fulfillment.
A. store operations
B. cross-channel order management
C. social marketing
D. supply chain visibility
Answer: D

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NO.3 What provides the capability to rapidly deliver new web concepts or delineated brand sites via asset
sharing on a common platform?
A. Personalization
B. Social integration
C. Partnership with affiliates
D. Extended sites
Answer: B

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NO.4 Segmentation, offer management, interaction history, real-time behavioral targeting, and contact
optimization are examples of capabilities delivered as part of what?
A. Data mining.
B. Social platform.
C. Central decisioning.
D. Customer clustering.
Answer: C

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NO.5 What can AdTarget do?
A. Monitor all advertisements watched on cable television
B. Working withaffiliates, target Internet ads without email
C. Utilize You Tubeto more effectively deliver adcontent
D. Force customers to watch the entireInternetadbefore entering websites
Answer: B

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NO.6 Which of the following Smarter Commerce Offerings is a core part of delivering a customer
buy-online, pick-up in store (BOPIS) capability?
A. Social Analytics.
B. Distributed Order Management.
C. Logistics Management.
D. Customer Self Service.
Answer: B

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NO.7 The web marketing continuous optimization platform can drive which of the following capabilities?
A. Optimize paid search advertising.
B. Automate customer recommendations based on LIVE profile.
C. Target through online advertisements based on interaction history.
D. All of the above.
Answer: B

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NO.8 What are Smarter Commerce Buy
Offerings focused on?
A. Visibility and optimization in the supply chain.
B. Customer buying patterns.
C. Effective 1:1 marketing to facilitate customer purchase decisions.
D. Buy online, pick-up in the store (BOPIS).
Answer: A

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NO.9 Smarter Commerce is focused on which of the following 3 dimensions with respect to the customer?
A. Customer potential, customer transaction capture, customer fulfillment.
B. Customer insight, customer value strategy, customer & partner engagement.
C. Customer demographics, customer geography, customer affluence.
D. Customer returns, customer purchases, customer order changes.
Answer: B

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NO.10 Smarter Commerce capabilities are packaged and delivered as what?
A. A single, high-value, shrink-wrapped, solution for commerce.
B. Middleware components requiring additional business function software.
C. Software, hardware, and services to deliver specific business processcapabilities which support each
phase of the commerce cycle.
D. A simple monolithic application for each phase of the commerce cycle.
Answer: A

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Exam Code: 000-N21
Exam Name: IBM (IBM Rational Collaborative Lifecycle Management for IT Technical Sales Mastery Test v1)
One year free update, No help, Full refund!
Total Q&A: 75 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2013-12-30

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NO.1 An organization has developed a set of best practices it plans to reuse in the future. How should the
organization use IBM Rational CLM to achieve this?
A. create a project template
B. write a best practices wiki
C. generate a process report
D. develop a project script
Answer: A

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NO.2 Which of the five imperatives best helps each team member understand what the rest of the team is
doing and how it impacts the overall workload?
A. in-context collaboration
B. real-time planning
C. lifecycle traceability
D. continuous improvement
Answer: C

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NO.3 What is a major advantage of deploying IBM Rational CLM in a single server setup?
A. full Single Sign-On (SSO) support
B. a single LDAP server to control authentication
C. simplified linking of work items
D. easier to schedule maintenance windows
Answer: C

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NO.4 Which kind of artifact should a stakeholder create in order to visually model the interaction of a
customer without focusing on the design?
A. user interface sketch
B. business process diagram
C. work flow diagram
D. use case diagram
Answer: D

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NO.5 IBM Rational Requirements Composer version 3.0.1 and later supports integration with which two
products? (Choose two.)
A. Rational Software Architect Design Manager
B. Rational ClearQuest
C. Rational RequisitePro
D. Rational DOORS
Answer: A,B

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NO.6 Practitioners are reluctant to participate in planning activities. Which IBM Rational CLM capability
should the sales specialist suggest?
A. Team members can update status in the course of their daily work.
B. Teams are regularly reminded to provide status updates.
C. Team members who do not participate are absent in the Planned Time view.
D. Team leaders can require members to approve the plan.
Answer: A

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NO.7 Progress frequently stalls because team members are unaware of which tasks they must complete in
order for the group to move forward.
Which IBM Rational CLM feature helps prevent these delays the most.?
A. The Planned Time view shows the work load for each team member.
B. The Roadmap view makes dependencies visible to the whole team.
C. Ranked lists ensure that the team works on important items first.
D. In-place status updates appear in the plan automatically.
Answer: B

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NO.8 What is a major benefit of real-time planning in IBM Rational CLM?
A. It captures best practices and reuses them across teams.
B. It allows everyone to participate in keeping the plan accurate.
C. It encourages incremental and breakthrough improvements.
D. It clearly separates planning from execution.
Answer: B

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NO.9 A project lead wants to ensure that the whole team understands the overall scope of the project.
Which capability of IBM Rational CLM should the sales specialist highlight?
A. It provides a single plan that spans requirements, development, and testing.
B. It fully integrates project planning with execution.
C. It emails copies of the plan to all team members.
D. It subjects any changes in the plan to the entire team approval.It subjects any changes in the plan to
the entire team approval.
Answer: A

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NO.10 Which CLM capability does the Analyst role have full read/write access to?
A. software configuration management
B. test management
C. automation
D. requirements management
Answer: D

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