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Exam Code: 50-695
Exam Name: Novell (Novell eDirectory Design and Implementation:eDirectory 8.8)
One year free update, No help, Full refund!
Total Q&A: 70 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2014-01-30

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NO.1 What is a part of analyzing user needs when creating an accessibility needs analysis document?
A.Design a strategy for mobile users.
B.Specify ZENworks object configurations.
C.Specify security rights to particular objects.
D.Gather information related to physical network resource needs.
E.Create guidelines that determine how eDirectory objects are used to create the user environment.
Correct:D

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NO.2 Which statements are true regarding the placement of eDirectory objects? (Choose 2.)
A.Place application objects in their own container.
B.Don't place user objects near the top of the tree.
C.If possible, don't place objects deep within a tree.
D.If possible, don't place server objects within the same container.
E.Server objects should be placed near the user objects they are servicing.
Correct:C E

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NO.3 Which replica type contains only the partition root object?
A.Master
B.Read-only
C.Read/write
D.Filtered replica
E.Subordinate reference
Correct:E

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NO.4 Which statement is true regarding the Priority Sync feature?
A.Priority Sync is supported only between two or more eDirectory 8.8 servers hosting any partition.
B.Priority Sync is supported only between two or more eDirectory 8.8 servers hosting the root partition.
C.Priority Sync is supported only between two or more eDirectory 8.8 servers hosting the same partition.
D.Priority Sync is supported only between two or more eDirectory 8.8 servers hosting parent or child
partitions.
Correct:C

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NO.5 Which statement is true regarding the function-based design for the upper layers of your
eDirectory tree?
A.It is the best design type to handle future growth.
B.It should be used if there is a WAN in the network.
C.It is best for small networks that do not span more than one location.
D.It is a more difficult type of design for the upper layers of your tree.
E.It should be used if there are multiple organization objects in the tree.
Correct:C

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NO.6 Which statement is true about eDirectory partitions?
A.Partitions can overlap each other.
B.A container object can reside in 2 partitions.
C.A partition provides fault tolerance for the file system.
D.Partitions are logical divisions of eDirectory that enable the database to be divided among several
servers.
Correct:D

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NO.7 Examine the exhibit by clicking the Exhibit button. How many subordinate references will exist
in this tree?
A.3
B.5
C.6
D.7
E.8
F.9
G.12
Correct:E

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NO.8 Which of the following is most important to consider when designing the upper layers of an
eDirectory tree?
A.Time synchronization strategy
B.Number of objects in the tree
C.Number of servers in the tree
D.Physical network infrastructure
E.Number of partitions and replicas
Correct:D

Novell   50-695 study guide   50-695

NO.9 What is the most important design consideration when designing the upper layers of an
eDirectory tree?
A.Partition and replica plan
B.Time synchronization strategy
C.Number of objects in the tree
D.Number of servers in the tree
E.Physical network infrastructure
Correct:E

Novell   50-695 study guide   50-695

NO.10 What tasks are helpful in completing a needs analysis when designing an eDirectory tree?
(Choose 2.)
A.Gather information about network connectivity
B.Gather information about resources that users access
C.Gather information to decide on a replica placement strategy
D.Gather information to estimate the time for each phase of design
E.Gather information to decide which server should be the time provider
Correct:A B

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Exam Code: 50-877
Exam Name: Novell (Cni-foundations of novell Networking:netware 6)
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Total Q&A: 193 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2014-01-30

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NO.1 Which utility's only function is to set directory and file attributes?
A.Flag
B.Filer
C.NDIR
D.NCOPY
Correct:A

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NO.2 Which statements are true regarding the Public trustee? (Choose 2.)
A.The Public trustee is the tree object.
B.By default, all eDirectory objects are security equivalent to Public.
C.By default, Public allows users to view any other object in the tree before authenticating.
D.By default, users must be authenticated before receiving rights through the Public trustee.
E.Any rights assigned by the tree object take precedence to rights assigned by the Public trustee.
Correct:B C

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NO.3 Click the Point-and-Click button to begin. You are setting up a GroupWise rule to forward all
messages received from your manager. Click the button or option that allows you to forward the
message.
Correct:

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NO.4 Which is the top-most object in the eDirectory tree?
A.Tree object
B.Domain object
C.Country object
D.Organization object
Correct:A

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NO.5 Which email program only offers a client side (front-end) application?
A.Lotus
B.Eudora
C.Exchange
D.GroupWise
Correct:B

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NO.6 Which MAP command creates a search drive in the last possible search position?
A.MAP L16:=.volume.ou.organization:path
B.MAP S16:=.volume.ou.organization:path
C.MAP S16:=.path:volume.ou.organization
D.MAP S26:=.volume.ou.organization:path
E.MAP S26:=.path:volume.ou.organization
Correct:B

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NO.7 Click the Exhibit Button to Begin. The Exhibit contains the Novell Client for Windows 2000
property page. Which tab allows you to control the configuration setting of Network
Neighborhood to hide the server page?
A.Client
B.Advanced Login
C.Default Capture
D.Location Profiles
E.Advanced Menu Settings
Correct:E

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NO.8 What is used to load the print service manager?
A.iManager
B.ConsoleOne
C.NDPS Broker
D.Server console prompt
Correct:D

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NO.9 Click the Drag-and-Drop button to begin. Match each NetWare 6 feature with its description.
Correct:
Green choice3---->Yellow Choice1
Green choice4---->Yellow Choice2
Green choice2---->Yellow Choice3
Green choice1---->Yellow Choice4

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NO.10 In an NDPS environment, which type of notification needs to be configured for a printer
operator to be notified when intervention is required?
A.Popup
B.Log-file
C.Job-owner
D.Programmatic
E.Interested-party
Correct:E

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NO.11 Which are characteristics of a controlled access printer? (Choose 2.)
A.It has low security.
B.It provides plug-and print capabilities.
C.It allows for little administrative configuration.
D.It is created and administered as an eDirectory object.
E.It offers a full range of event and status notification options.
Correct:D E

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NO.12 Someone is trying to access your network by logging in as Admin. Which is the simplest and
most effective method for preventing this type of security breach?
A.Hide the Admin object.
B.Rename the Admin object.
C.Use an IRF to prohibit global access.
D.Place an intruder detection limit on the Admin account.
E.Make another user security equivalent to the Admin object.
Correct:B

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NO.13 In an NDPS printing environment, which utility do you use to configure event notification?
A.iMonitor
B.iManager
C.ConsoleOne
D.Remote Manager
E.NetWare Administrator
Correct:E

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NO.14 How are file system effective rights calculated?
A.All rights granted to the user explicitly and through other objects, minus IRFs
B.Between explicit assignments and assignments through other objects the most restrictive rights are
applied, minus IRFs
C.Between explicit assignments and assignments through other objects the least restrictive rights are
applied, minus IRFs
D.The least restrictive rights granted to the user through eDirectory and the most restrictive granted to the
user through the file system, minus IRFs
Correct:A

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NO.15 You are using the default configuration on your server. To access Web Manager from your
workstation, you open a browser, enter the server's IP address, and then enter which port number?
A.443
B.636
C.2200
D.8008
E.8009
Correct:C

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NO.16 Enter the console command that improves security by not allowing a malicious NLM to be run
from the floppy disk drive. Answer:
A.SECURECONSOLE
Correct:A

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NO.17 Which statements are true regarding setting identifier variables in login scripts? (Choose 2.)
A.They must be written in initial caps.
B.They must be written in lower case.
C.They must be written in upper case.
D.They must preceded by the pound (#) sign.
E.They must be preceded by the percent (%) sign.
F.They must be preceded by the underscore (_) sign.
Correct:C E

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NO.18 Which objects can be children of the tree object? (Choose 2.)
A.Admin
B.Country
C.Organization
D.License Container
E.Organizational unit
Correct:B C

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NO.19 The Rhernandez user object exists in the DEL.DIGITALAIR container. Which is an example of a
typeless distinguished name for Rhernandez?
A.RHERNANDEZ..
B.CN=RHERNANDEZ
C.RHERNANDEZ.DIGITALAIR
D..RHERNANDEZ.DEL.DIGITALAIR
E..CN=RHERNANDEZ.OU=DEL.O=DIGITALAIR
Correct:D

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NO.20 Which statements regarding login scripts are true? (Choose 2.)
A.The default login script can be edited.
B.Only one profile login script per user is allowed.
C.It is recommended to use user login scripts rather than container login scripts.
D.If the user login script is executed, the default login script is never executed.
E.Even if a user's parent container does not have a login script, a different container login script can be
executed for that user.
Correct:B D

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Exam Code: 50-V37
Exam Name: Novell (CSE RSA enVision Essentials (new update))
One year free update, No help, Full refund!
Total Q&A: 97 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2014-01-30

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NO.1 In RSA enVision UDS development, Value Maps, Regular Expressions, and Functions are types of
which of the following? (Check the one best answer.)
A.Data Reduction
B.XML Parsing Rules
C.Conditional Variables
D.Summary Data Buckets
Answer:C

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NO.2 In the RSA enVision UDS process, what is the purpose of performing Data Reduction steps? (Check the
one best answer.)
A.Improve speed and efficiency of data processing
B.Compress unsupported device data prior to storage
C.Apply ISO-approved abbreviations to message text strings
D.Decrease the rate that unsupported device data is collected
Answer:A

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NO.3 The UDS development process involves which of the following tasks? (Check two answers.)
A.Verifying XML syntax and parsing
B.Using XML to convert device logs to IPDB format
C.Mapping a device name to an existing enVision device
D.Creating an XML file to define header and message information
Answer:A D

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NO.4 After creating a customized Report Menu system, which RSA enVision service(s) need to be re-started?
A.Only the NIC Webserver Service
B.The NIC Webserver and NIC Server Services
C.The NIC Webserver, NIC Server and NIC Locator Services
D.The NIC Webserver, NIC Server, NIC Locator, and NIC Packager Services
Answer:A

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NO.5 The administrator can use the RSA enVision's user authentication feature to complete what tasks?
(Check two answers.)
A.Use an existing Microsoft Active Directory authentication server
B.Associate administrative users with an authentication server
C.Require enVision users to change passwords on a periodic basis
D.Enforce a pre-defined set of 'prohibited passwords' based on a dictionary file
E.Utilize existing domain authenticated user accounts as the basis for enVision user accounts
Answer:A E

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NO.6 How many Remote Collectors (RC) can each Database Server (D-SRV) support? (Check the one best
answer.)
A.Eight (8)
B.Ten (10)
C.Sixteen (16)
D.Thirty two (32)
Answer:C

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NO.7 True or false. If a conflict exists with the default enVision collection port after appliance installation, the
Collector Service can be modified to configure event collection on a different port.
A.True
B.false
Answer:A

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NO.8 Which RSA enVision module is used to configure the enVision system as well as to monitor its health
and performance? (Check the one best answer.)
A.Overview module
B.Alerts Module
C.Analysis Module
D.Reports Module
Answer:A

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NO.9 When would you expect a difference between the log information captured by RSA enVision and the
log information generated by a device? (Check the one best answer.)
A.When the source IP address of the device is unknown to enVision.
B.When the device is configured to send only certain events to syslog.
C.When "Collect All Logs" is left unchecked in the Manage Devices screen.
D.When the device is a known device and enVision recognizes the events to be non-critical.
Answer:B

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NO.10 When setting up a Check Point firewall device, which of the following is a good practice that should be
completed first? (Check the one best answer.)
A.Stop and restart the Check Point Firewall Service
B.Stop and restart the enVision NIC Collector Service
C.Verify that the Check Point Log Viewer is receiving events
D.Set an 8-character key to establish an authenticated connection
Answer:C

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NO.11 When creating a new enVision user account, which User Group is the account added to by default?
(Check the one best answer.)
A.Report-users
B.Administrators
C.Temporary-users
D.All-applications-users
Answer:D

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NO.12 When initially setting up a multiple appliance site, only the D-SRV unit is connected to a LAN ?all of the
other units in the site then connect directly to the D-SRV.
A.True
B.False
Answer:B

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NO.13 Why would the checkbox of a device type be grayed out On the Manage Device Types screen? (Check
the one best answer.)
A.It's not licensed
B.Device is unknown but data can be collected
C.Device is known but not compatible with enVision
D.Device is associated with a monitored device within the NIC domain
Answer:D

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NO.14 What two tasks does UDS complete when the command "uds reate" is executed to create a device?
(Check the two best answers.)
A.Creates the files .ini, client.txt, vendor.txt and msg.xml
B.Immediately starts collecting data from the new device
C.Identifies all associated devices that have been configured
D.Create all directory structures required for the device
E.Lists all devices to verify that the device does not already exist
Answer:A D

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NO.15 When planning an RSA enVision installation, which statements below about the Site Name are
important considerations? (Check two answers.)
A.The Site Name must match an enVision domain name
B.The Site Name must be unique within an enVision domain and cannot be the same as the customer's
NetBIOS domain name
C.The Site Name must not contain any numeric or punctuation characters
D.The Site Name must have the same suffix as the Windows domain in which it resides
E.The Site Name must not match the name of any existing Windows domain in the network
Answer:B E

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NO.16 What does RSA enVision do when it is set to auto-discover new devices? (Check the one best answer.)
A.Adds new supported devices automatically to the list of monitored devices in the Manage Monitored
Devices screen
B.Temporarily holds in the "New Device" cache and begins to collect data after it is approved by an
administrator
C.RSA enVision alerts members of the "administrators" group to add a new device to the list of monitored
devices
D.RSA enVision automatically exports device attributes to an XML file for an administrator to review
Answer:A

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NO.17 What are three steps that are part of the device interpretation process using UDS? (Check the three
best answers.)
A.Configure devices to send log data to RSA enVision
B.Device identification (i.e. vendor, device name, class, sub-class, etc.)
C.Identification of device collection method
D.Message definition
E.List of known vulnerabilities
F.Data parsing
Answer:B D F

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NO.18 When opening a connection in Event Explorer, you can define which of the following features? (Check
the three correct answers.)
A.Devices
B.Event categories
C.Log messages
D.Time frame
E.Local collector
Answer:A B D

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NO.19 If a customer has a specific syslog that they would like to use as part of a demonstration, you can load it
into enVision for reporting and querying using which of the following? (Check the one best answer.)
A.The lsdata utility to import the syslog file
B.Copying the syslog file into the IPDB data directory
C.Using the Data Injector utility to collect data from the syslog file
D.Using the Custom Reports ?View External Data function of the administrative GUI
Answer:C

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NO.20 What happens if an event source device type is not immediately recognized by RSA enVision? (Check
the one best answer.)
A.It will be defined as "unknown" and for a limited time enVision will collect event data it generates
B.Data from that device will be discarded until the device type can be defined
C.An alert is generated by default to call an administrator's attention to the device
D.The UDS Service will create a parsing XML file for the device and place data in the NIC Parse Cache
Answer:A

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Exam Code: 920-164
Exam Name: Nortel (NCSS-Contact Center Manager RIs6.0 I and M)
One year free update, No help, Full refund!
Total Q&A: 57 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2014-01-30

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NO.1 You have been asked to migrate a classic client environment to the Contact Center Manager
Administration (CCMA) environment. The classic client data must be migrated to the CCMA during the
upgrade process. Which data must be re-created, rather than migrated?
A. assignments
B. user defined reports
C. user defined schedules
D. custom real time displays
Answer: D

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NO.2 Your current configuration consists of Symposium Web Client Rls. 4.5 installed on a Windows 2000
server. Your target objective is to be using Contact Center Manager Administration (CCMA) on your new
Windows 2003 server. Which two interim steps are appropriate prior to upgrading to CCMA? (Choose
two.)
A. Utilize the Active Directory Application Mode (ADAM) Migration Tool MSI for data transfer.
B. Upgrade to CCMA, then migrate to the new server.
C. Install CCMA on the Windows 2003 server and migrate the data.
D. Upgrade to Windows 2003. Next, upgrade Symposium Web Client to CCMA.
E. Migrate to the Windows 2003 server with Symposium Web Client Rls. 4.5 then upgrade to CCMA.
Answer: AE

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NO.3 A customer has Contact Center Manager Server (CCMS) and wants to create a Platform Recovery
Disk. Which CCMS utility should the customer use for creating a Platform Recovery Disk?
A. Migration utility
B. Database backup utility
C. Registry Maintenance utility
D. Server Setup Configuration utility
Answer: D

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NO.4 You have been asked to upgrade a Symposium Call Center Server (SCCS) Rls. 3.0 to Contact Center
Manager Server (CCMS). Which path is supported?
A. Migrate directly to CCMS.
B. Migrate to SCCS Rls. 4.2, then to CCMS.
C. Migrate to SCCS Rls. 5.0, then to CCMS.
D. Migrate to SCCS Rls. 4.0, to 5.0, then to CCMS.
Answer: B

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NO.5 When migrating Active Directory data, several factors will determine the length of time required to do it.
Which three factors are relevant? (Choose three.)
A. the speed of the network
B. the proximity of the servers
C. the speed of the computers
D. the amount of Symposium data to be migrated
E. the current release of Symposium Call Center Server
Answer: ACD

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Exam Code: 922-100
Exam Name: Nortel (Communication Server 1000 Rls.4.0 to Rls.5.0 Delta)
One year free update, No help, Full refund!
Total Q&A: 30 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2014-01-30

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NO.1 A customer is upgrading to a Communication Server 1000E Rls. 5.0. Which hardware components also
provide DSP services? (Choose two.)
A. 32-port DSP Daughterboard
B. 96-port DSP Daughterboard
C. 128-port DSP Daughterboard
D. Media Gateway Controller card (MC32B)
Answer: AB

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NO.2 A customer is upgrading a Communication Server 1000S to a Communication Server 1000E Rls. 5.0.
Which hardware component replaces the Media Gateway 1000S controller card?
A. DSP Daughterboard
B. Media Card 32 Port Security
C. No hardware change required.
D. Media Gateway Controller card
E. Call Processor Pentium Mobile
Answer: D

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NO.3 A customer is upgrading to a Communication Server 1000E Rls. 5.0. To take advantage of features
supported by the Enterprise Common Manager (ECM) framework, which systems can be deployed as the
ECM? (Choose two.)
A. VxWorks Operating System and ISP 1100
B. Linux Operating System and IBM x306m
C. Linux Operating System and HP DL 320
D. VxWorks Operating System and HP DL 320
E. VxWorks Operating System and IBM x306m
Answer: BC

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NO.4 A customer is upgrading to Communication Server 1000E Rls. 5.0 and needs additional temporary IP
User Licenses for controlled load sharing between two systems.
Which statement is true regarding the licenses to be ordered and the use of additional IP User Licenses?
A. No additional licenses need to be ordered. If the customer runs out of IP User Licenses for the 1150E,
they can use the Basic IP User Licenses.
B. Basic IP User Licenses must be ordered. Regular IP Licenses will be used if the temporary license
count is exceeded.
C. Regular IP User Licenses must be ordered. Basic IP User Licenses will be used if the temporary
license count is exceeded.
D. Temporary User Licenses should be ordered. Basic IP or Regular IP User Licenses will be used if the
temporary license count is exceeded.
Answer: D

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NO.5 A customer has upgraded from a Communication Server (CS) 1000S to a CS 1000E Standard
Availability (SA). Due to their projected company and network growth, they are contemplating upgrading
to a CS 1000E High Availability (HA) system. Which component(s) differentiate a HA system from a SA
system?
A. a second CP-PM
B. enabling the HA software package
C. a second CP-PM and a CP-PM Call Server
D. a second CP-PM and enabling the HA software package
Answer: D

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Exam Code: 920-338
Exam Name: Nortel (BCM50 Rls.3.0 BCM200/400 Rls 4.0 and BCM450 Rls. 1.0 Instal Con)
One year free update, No help, Full refund!
Total Q&A: 70 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2014-01-30

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NO.1 You are configuring a BCM50 VoIP network using SIP trunks. You want to ensure callers from remote
systems are authorized to place calls to the local system.
How do you do this?
A.Enable Remote Authentication, and enter each DN to be verified in the Local Accounts table.
B.Enable Local Authentication, and enter User ID/Password combinations in the Local Accounts table.
C.Enable Remote Authentication, and enter User ID/Password combinations in the Local Accounts table.
D.Enable Local Authentication, and enter each DN to be verified in the Local Accounts table.
Answer: B

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NO.2 You require a Nortel Business Communications Manager 50 (BCM50) system with an Ethernet router.
Which main unit must you choose?
A.BCM50
B.BCM50a
C.BCM50b
D.BCM50e
Answer: D

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NO.3 On a Nortel Business Communications Manager 50 (BCM50), how do you program several special
features at once for CallPilot mailboxes?
A.Enable networking in the Class of Service.
B.Assign express messaging lines in mailbox properties.
C.Assign features by selecting a Class of Service.
D.Purchase additional authorization codes.
Answer: C

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NO.4 On a company's default system, six buses of DS30 channel blocks are assigned to Media Bay Modules
(MBM) (2/6 channel split). The DS30 allocation needs to be changed to a 3/5 split to accommodate
increased IP telephony requirements.
How is this change accomplished?
A.The BCM 200/400 assigns bus 6 to the system bus resource.
B.The BCM 200/400 assigns bus 6 to the system bus resource through the MBM dip switches.
C.The BCM 200/400 assigns bus 7 to the system bus resource.
D.The BCM 200/400 assigns bus 7 to the system bus resource, although all telephony programming will
be defaulted.
Answer: C

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NO.5 The Nortel Business Communications Manager 50 (BCM50) expansion unit is designed to support
Media Bay Modules (MBMs). These modules are available in many configurations.
What is the maximum number of MBMs that the system can support?
A.one
B.two
C.four
D.six
Answer: B

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Exam Code: 922-109
Exam Name: Nortel (Communications Server 1000 Rls.6.0 BARS/NARS)
One year free update, No help, Full refund!
Total Q&A: 34 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2014-01-30

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NO.1 Click on the Exhibit buttons. Given the customer's programmed database shown in the exhibits and
where AC1 = 9, which RLI will the call complete when a station user dials 9-814-666-3434?
A.RLI 2
B.RLI 3
C.RLI 4
D.RLI 9
E.call will not complete as dialed
Answer:E

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NO.2 Click on the Exhibit button. A customer's dialing requirements, listed below, require that all station users
assigned an NCOS of 3 and Class of Service of Conditionally Toll Denied (CTD) be able to place toll calls
from the United States to Australia. Australia Country Code: 61 NCOS of 3 has an FRL of 3 Expensive
Routers are not being used With reference to the exhibit, which table will allow all station users to be able
to place these toll calls?
A.Provisioning Table A
B.Provisioning Table B
C.Provisioning Table C
D.Provisioning Table D
Answer:B

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NO.3 With Communication Server 1000 Rls. 6.0, Zone Based Dialing is supported for both public and private
dial and numbering plans for on-net calls. Which statements best describe Zone Based Dialing? (Choose
two.)
A.For outgoing trunk calls, CLID is converted to E.164 format when DIALPLAN is configured as PUB, for
PRV type - CLID remains as is.
B.On-net Calls are routed using each CS 1000 site dial plan database and are routed to the remote
system to process.
C.Private and Public (E.164) dial plans and features are not retained. Zone Based Dialing uses the
Flexible Dial Plan information to route network-wide.
D.A new Zone type, Numbering Zones, provides a user interface to configure the parameters for:
Zone-based Parameters, Flexible Dial Plan, and Direct Inward Dial number.
Answer:A D

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NO.4 Click on the Exhibit button. Given the SDRR programming options shown in the exhibit, which SDRR
programming would allow a user at to be able to dial 1-900-867-3333, but not successfully dial any other
1-900 based number?
A.Table 1
B.Table 2
C.Table 3
D.Table 4
Answer:A

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NO.5 Click on the Exhibit button. Consider a customer's dialing plan and programming shown in the exhibit.
Assuming all required Route List Indexes have been programmed, why will the station user's dialed call of

NO.6 544-3333 not complete?
A.AC1 Access Code was not dialed
B.NXX 544 is not provisioned in the customer's database
C.3333 is Denied under the SDRR programming
D.AC2 Access Code was not dialed
Answer:B

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Exam Code: NS0-153
Exam Name: Network Appliance (Network Appliance Storege Networking)
One year free update, No help, Full refund!
Total Q&A: 184 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2014-01-30

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NO.1 If you change the setting for the option cifs.neg_buf_size, you need to terminate CIFS on the
storage appliance and do a restart for the changes to take effect.
A.True
B.False
Correct:A

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NO.2 Which security method encrypts the data?
A.IPSec
B.CHAP
C.LUN masking
D.Header and Data Digests
Correct:A

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NO.3 The writeable snapshot that is created for a LUN clone depends on ___________.
A.mirroring.
B.the snapshot taken at the time the clone was created.
C.exclusive access to the volume.
D.the data in the original LUN not changing.
Correct:B

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NO.4 Which command is the most appropriate for troubleshooting a multiprotocol authentication
problem?
A.wcc
B.rdfile /etc/rc
C.priv set advanced
D.sysstat 1
Correct:A

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NO.5 If the client is a CIFS client, locks are __________.
A.advisory
B.mandatory
C.ordered
D.optional
Correct:B

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NO.6 To view per client NFS statistics on the storage appliance, options nfs.per_client_stats.enable
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A.True
B.False
Correct:A

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NO.7 Using the output below, a co-worker determined that these are type "Solaris" LUNs. What would
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--------------------------------------------------- /vol/vol1/lun0 solaris-igroup0 0 /vol/vol1/lun1 solaris-igroup1
0 /vol/vol1/qtree1/lun2 solaris-igroup2 0 /vol/vol1/qtree1/lun3 solaris-igroup3 0
A.These are type "Solaris" LUNs.
B.These are NFS LUNs, but the exact OS cannot be determined.
C.Not enough information is given here. Run the lun show -v command to get the information requested.
D.Not enough information is given here. Run the lun map command to get the information requested.
Correct:C

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NO.8 Which command would you use to verify that the iSCSI service is running?
A.license add iSCSI
B.iscsi service
C.iscsi status
D.iscsi protocol
Correct:C

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NO.9 Which three are used for creating LUNs on the storage appliance? (Choose 3)
A.lun create
B.lun setup
C.FilerView
D.lun config
Correct:A B C

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NO.10 Which one of the following will enable "symlink_strict_security"?
A.options cifs.symlink_strict_security on
B.cifs shares -change -symlink_strict_security
C.options symlink_strict_security=true
D.options symlink_strict_security=on
Correct:B

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NO.11 A quota target can be defined as _______________.
A.the maximum amount of disk space in a volume.
B.the maximum number of files in a disk.
C.a user, group, or qtree to which a quota is applied.
D.a specific disk space threshold.
Correct:C

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NO.12 ____________ is the default cfmode for new installations of Data ONTAP 7.2.
A.single image
B.mixed
C.partner
D.dual fabric
Correct:A

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NO.13 To configure a storage system as a member of an active directory, the time on the storage
system must be synchronized with the time on the Domain Controller.
A.True
B.False
Correct:A

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NO.14 What is the outcome of this command? lun create -b /vol/vol2/.snapshot/testsnap/lun0
/vol/vol2/lun0.clone
A.It creates a duplicate of the clone process of lun0.
B.It creates a clone of the writeable snapshot of lun0.
C.It creates a writeable snapshot of lun0.
D.It creates a snapshot "testsnap" of vol2.
Correct:C

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NO.15 To export volumes and directories automatically on reboot, include them in the /etc/exports file.
A.True
B.False
Correct:A

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NO.16 Three methods of creating a LUN are: *lun setup *lun map *FilerView
A.True
B.False
Correct:A

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NO.17 UNIX allow file access based on __________.
A.GID or UID and UNIX permissions.
B.NT ACLs and UNIX permissions.
C.NT ACLs and SID.
D.GID or UID and ACLs.
Correct:A

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NO.18 If you believe you have a FC SAN performance problem, which NetApp utility or command
would gather both your Solaris host and storage appliance data for analysis?
A.poststat
B.perfstat
C.prestat
D.sio_ntap.exe
Correct:B

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NO.19 Applications, such as databases, running on NAS or iSCSI or FC SAN must be
__________________.
A.prepared for snapshots by flushing buffers to disk and momentarily suspending activity.
B.disconnected from their storage resources during the snapshot.
C.using dynamic multipathing during a backup.
D.mirrored with a host-based volume manager to be backed-up.
Correct:A

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NO.20 What is the definition of the cifs setup command?
A.It displays the mount point of all shared directories.
B.It displays the names of all mounted directories on the storage system.
C.It displays the prompts for CIFS configuration information.
D.It displays a list of the users on the storage system.
Correct:C

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Exam Code: NS0-502
Exam Name: Network Appliance (NetApp Certified Implementation Engineer-SAN and Virtualization)
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Total Q&A: 106 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2014-01-30

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NO.1 Zoning by World Wide Port Name (WWPN) is deployed and a host HBA is replaced.
Which zone change needs to be made?
A. No changes are necessary.
B. The zone configuration should be changed to include the port to which the HBA is connected.
C. The zone configuration should be changed to include the WWPN of the new HBA; the old WWPN will
be automatically dropped.
D. The zone configuration should be changed to include the WWPN of the new HBA and to remove the
WWPN of the old HBA.
Answer: D

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NO.2 What are three relevant perfstat counters to check for unaligned I/O that do not fall on the WAFL
boundary? (Choose three.)
A. wp.partial_write
B. vvol_read.io_valid
C. read/write_align_histo.XX
D. read/write_partial_blocks.XX
E. xinode content misses
Answer: ACD

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NO.3 Which utility on Solaris 10 can be used to collect information about firmware and driver versions for an
Emulex LP1xxxx/LPe1xxxx HBA?
A. EMutil
B. SANutil
C. hbainfo
D. SANsurfer
E. HBAnywhere
Answer: E

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NO.4 Which utility on Windows 2003 and Windows 2008 can be used to collect information about firmware
and driver versions for an Emulex LP1xxxx/LPe1xxx HBA?
A. EMutil
B. SANutil
C. fcp config
D. SANsurfer
E. HBAnywhere
Answer: E

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NO.5 Click the Exhibit button.
Given the information provided in the diagram, what is the appropriate FC topology?
A. point-to-point
B. switched fabric
C. arbitrated loop
D. ring
Answer: B

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NO.6 A 100-GB thinly provisioned LUN is allocated to a Windows host. 100 GB of data is written into the
LUN. The current capacity utilization on the disk array as well as the host is 100%. 50 GB of data is
deleted from the LUN. Space reclaimer has NOT been run.
What is the current capacity utilization on both the host and the disk array?
A. 50% on the host, 100% on the disk array
B. 100% on the host, 50% on the disk array
C. 50% on the host, 50% on the disk array
D. 100% on the host, 100% on the disk array
Answer: A

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NO.7 Click the Exhibit Button
The table highlights the space management policy that is defined for a particular flexvol, acmevol.
Based on the information provided in the table, which action will the storage controller take when it runs
out of space in the volume?
A. It will try deleting Snapshot copies first to reclaim space before trying to grow the volume.
B. It will grow the volume before deleting Snapshot copies.
C. It will only try deleting Snapshot copies to reclaim space and will not grow the volume.
D. It is irrelevant since fractional_reserve is 0%.
Answer: C

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NO.8 An organization currently has a NetApp Fibre Channel block-based solution. With limited budget and
resources, they want to create a new disaster recovery site that utilizes a NetApp solution.
What would the optimal solution include?
A. SnapMover and Fibre Channel at the disaster recovery site for all hosts
B. SnapMirror and iSCSI at the disaster recovery site for all hosts
C. Fibre Channel at both locations using ftp to replicate storage
D. MetroCluster and NAS
Answer: B

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NO.9 Click the Exhibit button.
Based on the diagram shown, what is the appropriate FC switch topology?
A. core-edge
B. full mesh
C. partial mesh
D. partial cascade
Answer: C

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NO.10 Click the Exhibit button.
You see the following error on the storage controller's console or messages file.
What is the most likely cause for this error?
A. portal group misconfiguration
B. iSCSI CHAP misconfiguration
C. iSNS misconfiguration
D. IPsec misconfiguration
Answer: B

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NO.11 A customer has a four-node SUN cluster configuration. Each node has two, dual-ported HBAs.
What is the minimum number of igroups that need to be created to map a LUN to the cluster?
A. 1
B. 2
C. 4
D. 8
Answer: A

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NO.12 What would you use to share a data LUN among multiple servers where each server has simultaneous
write access?
A. host-based BootBIOS
B. host-based multipathing
C. host-based volume manager
D. host-based clustered file system
Answer: D

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NO.13 Which FC SAN topology provides the best performance and scalability?
A. cascade
B. core-edge
C. full mesh
D. partial mesh
Answer: B

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NO.14 Click the Exhibit button.
Based on the diagram shown, what is the appropriate FC switch topology?
A. full mesh
B. core-edge
C. full cascade
D. partial mesh
Answer: B

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NO.15 Which utility on Solaris 10 can be used to collect information about firmware and driver versions for a
Qlogic QLAxxx/QLExxxx HBA?
A. EMutil
B. SANutil
C. cfgadmin
D. SANsurfer
E. HBAnywhere
Answer: D

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NO.16 Any newly installed system with Data ONTAP 7.3.1 supports which cfmode?
A. dual_fabric only
B. single_image
C. partner
D. mixed
Answer: B

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NO.17 Click the Exhibit button.
In the diagram shown, a portset is created on controller 1 with the command: controller1>portset create -f
ntapportset 0b. This portset is bound to the igroup with all the initiators in it.
How many paths can host 1 see to a LUN on controller 1?
A. six paths
B. four paths
C. eight paths
D. two paths
Answer: D

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NO.18 A 200-GB LUN is created in an empty 500-GB volume with the volume guarantee option set to Volume.
LUN reservation is enabled and the fractional reserve is set to 100 and scheduled snapshots are
disabled.
Directly after LUN creation, what is the maximum free space available in the volume?
A. 200 GB
B. 300 GB
C. 400 GB
D. 500 GB
Answer: B

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NO.19 A company has a Fibre Channel environment and wants to connect a new host in a remote data
center using 50/125um OM2 multi-mode fiber cable and needs to support 2 Gb speeds.
What is the maximum distance of the cable run supported in this situation?
A. 50/125um OM2 multi-mode fiber cable supports up to 500 meters at 2 Gb.
B. 50/125um OM2 multi-mode fiber cable supports up to 10000 meters at 2 Gb.
C. 50/125um OM2 multi-mode fiber cable supports up to 150 meters at 2 Gb.
D. 50/125um OM2 multi-mode fiber cable supports up to 300 meters at 2 Gb.
Answer: D

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NO.20 Which three protocols can be used for communications between a host running SnapDrive for
Windows and the NetApp Storage Controllers? (Choose three.)
A. http:
B. https:
C. ftp:
D. RPC
E. ssh
Answer: ABD

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